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Alright, your dispatched to a single family home for a fall.
U/A neighbor meets you and says he saw his neighbor hanging christmas lights on his garage when he fell from the roof.
Fall of about 15' and landed on his head.
Pt withdraws from painful stimuli, GCS of 7, has blood and broken teeth in his mouth, HR of 106, BP of 116/78, RR 26 and labored, SPO2 92%, BGL 90, Skin is cool and dry, no family present, neighbor doesn't really know the man.
Head: You notice blood coming from ears and nose, obvious depressed skull fx, left pupil is fixed and dilated.
Neck: No JVD, trachea midline, atraumatic
Chest: Paradoxical movement on the left side with clear breath sounds decreased on the left.
Abdomen: Soft, non-tender
Pelvis: Stable, atraumatic
Genitalia: Atraumatic
Lower Extremities: Atraumatic, CMS good
Upper Extremities: Right arm has a distal open fx, Left arm is atraumatic, both have good CMS
Back: Atraumatic
Had this as a scenario in class, and this is what I did, I want to know what you would do.
Grabbed c-spine, suctioned the airway then dropped an OPA and NRB @ 15lpm, left the nose/ears alone to let the fluid drain, noted the skull fx, there's nothing I can really do for it so I left it be. I stabilized the chest wall with a bulky dressing, boarded him, started transport SPO2 dropped to 86% so I dropped a tube and started the vent, splinted the arm en-route, also established a large bore IV hung NS @ KVO, 4 lead reassessing every 5 minutes.
Was told that I should have treated for shock. With the bleeding from the ears/nose, and depressed skull fx and GCS of 7 makes me think his ICP is rising, so no trendelenburg's and no reason to run the IV WFO since he isnt hypotensive, this was my thought process but I was told that it was incorrect. I'm just looking for some constructive criticism.
U/A neighbor meets you and says he saw his neighbor hanging christmas lights on his garage when he fell from the roof.
Fall of about 15' and landed on his head.
Pt withdraws from painful stimuli, GCS of 7, has blood and broken teeth in his mouth, HR of 106, BP of 116/78, RR 26 and labored, SPO2 92%, BGL 90, Skin is cool and dry, no family present, neighbor doesn't really know the man.
Head: You notice blood coming from ears and nose, obvious depressed skull fx, left pupil is fixed and dilated.
Neck: No JVD, trachea midline, atraumatic
Chest: Paradoxical movement on the left side with clear breath sounds decreased on the left.
Abdomen: Soft, non-tender
Pelvis: Stable, atraumatic
Genitalia: Atraumatic
Lower Extremities: Atraumatic, CMS good
Upper Extremities: Right arm has a distal open fx, Left arm is atraumatic, both have good CMS
Back: Atraumatic
Had this as a scenario in class, and this is what I did, I want to know what you would do.
Grabbed c-spine, suctioned the airway then dropped an OPA and NRB @ 15lpm, left the nose/ears alone to let the fluid drain, noted the skull fx, there's nothing I can really do for it so I left it be. I stabilized the chest wall with a bulky dressing, boarded him, started transport SPO2 dropped to 86% so I dropped a tube and started the vent, splinted the arm en-route, also established a large bore IV hung NS @ KVO, 4 lead reassessing every 5 minutes.
Was told that I should have treated for shock. With the bleeding from the ears/nose, and depressed skull fx and GCS of 7 makes me think his ICP is rising, so no trendelenburg's and no reason to run the IV WFO since he isnt hypotensive, this was my thought process but I was told that it was incorrect. I'm just looking for some constructive criticism.
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